Concerning the fact that weak and strong convergence coincide on (also know as Schur’s Theorem) I asked about an elementary proof in my last post. And in fact Markus Grasmair send me one which I’d like to present here. It is indeed elementary as it does not use any deep mathematics – however, it is a bit tricky.
Theorem 1 (Schur’s Theorem) A sequence
in
converges weakly iff it converges strongly.
Proof: As always, strong convergence implies weak convergence. To proof the opposite we assume that but
for some
. From this assumption we are going to derive a contradiction by constructing a vector
with unit norm and a subsequence
such that
does not converge to zero. We initialize
, set
, choose
such that
and define the first
entries of
as
Now we proceed inductively and assume that for some the numbers
the subsequence
and the entries
have already been constructed and fulfill for all
these conditions are fulfilled: (1) is fulfilled since the sum is empty, (2) is fulfilled since
and (3) is fulfilled by definition.) To go from a given
to the next one, we first observe that
implies that for all
it holds that
. Hence, we may take
such that
and of course we can take
. Since
is a summable sequence, we find
such that
and again we may take
. We set
and observe
By construction, the properties (1), (2) and (3) are fulfilled for , and we see that we can continue our procedure ad infinitum. For the resulting
(indeed
) and the subsequence
we obtain (using the properties (1), (2) and (3)) that
Although this proof is really elementary (you only need to know what convergence means and have a proper -handling) I found it hard to digest. I think that this is basically not avoidable – Schur’s Theorem seems to be one of these facts which easy to remember, hard to believe and hard to prove.
Let’s try a direct proof that implies
in
.
Proof: We know that a weakly convergent sequence in is pointwise convergent (by testing with the canonical basis vectors), hence for every
it holds that
for
. For some
we write
By pointwise convergence of we know that the first sum converges to zero for every
. Hence, we can proceed as follows: For a given
first choose
so large such that
for all
and then choose
so large that
. This sounds nice but wait! How about the choice of
? The tails of the series shall be bounded by
uniformly in
. That sounds possible but not obvious and indeed this is the place where the hard work starts! Indeed, one can prove that this choice of
is possible by contradiction: Assume that there exists an
such that for all
there exists a
such that
. Alas, this is same thing which we have proven in the proof of Markus…
Indeed, the construction Markus made in his proof can be generalized to obtain the Nikodym convergence theorem:
Theorem 2 Let
be a sequence of signed finite measures for which it holds that
for every measurable set
(which is equivalent to the weak convergence of
to zero). Then the sequence
is uniformly countably additive, i.e. for any sequence
of disjoint measurable sets the series
converges uniformly in
.
One may compare this alternative proof with Exercise 11 (right after Theorem 5 [Nikodym convergence theorem]) in this blog post by Terry where one shall take a similar path to proof Schur’s Theorem.